George
21-08-2005, 06:42
Okay,
We see that, in the UK version of HBP, Dumbledore is holding his wand in his left hand. This tells us that his wand arm is his left and that he is left-handed. However, in the US version, we see, without a shadow of a doubt, that Dumbledore holds his intact, right hand above the Pensieve. If his left hand was the damaged one, and Dumbledore was still able to perform spells, then he must have been right-handed, due to all of the "wand hand" thing described in Book 1. My thinking process is thus: If one's wand hand is hurt, they can't perform spells- due to the fact that they cannot complete the necessary motions of the arm, for the spell to be cast. Either way, there is slight disagreement as to which arm Dumbledore had actually hurt in the process of getting a seventh of the Dark Lord's soul. This could be of vital importance. Any thoughts?
We see that, in the UK version of HBP, Dumbledore is holding his wand in his left hand. This tells us that his wand arm is his left and that he is left-handed. However, in the US version, we see, without a shadow of a doubt, that Dumbledore holds his intact, right hand above the Pensieve. If his left hand was the damaged one, and Dumbledore was still able to perform spells, then he must have been right-handed, due to all of the "wand hand" thing described in Book 1. My thinking process is thus: If one's wand hand is hurt, they can't perform spells- due to the fact that they cannot complete the necessary motions of the arm, for the spell to be cast. Either way, there is slight disagreement as to which arm Dumbledore had actually hurt in the process of getting a seventh of the Dark Lord's soul. This could be of vital importance. Any thoughts?